Everskyward said:
The two of you obviously disagree. So what? The people reading can make their own judgment. I have been reading the thread, and you repeat yourself over and over about how there isn't any proof (that you accept, anyway) that coercive distancing has worked. See, I can even quote you from memory. But this is not a controlled experiment, so there can be no empirical proof, only anecdotal proof.
Well here is an actual scientific point to discuss. I disagree on this last statement. There are plenty of actual empirical data which could show that social distancing works in the US for Covid-19. This is not a non-falsifiable belief.
For example, one could correlate measures of social distancing such as cell phone records with decreases in the growth of actual death rates.
Or alternately one could show that coercive social distancing policies (which I tend to be more concerned with) have had a measurable effect of the growth rate of deaths by comparing states or counties.
I think one can imagine lots of other potential studies which could bear on this question.
So my general point has been where is such data and analysis? And without it, why should we conclude that it is absolutely clear that social distancing works here in the US for Covid-19?
There actually was a preprint which reported a study that analyzed to the end of March which purported to show that such increased isolation measured from cell phone records correlated with decreased confirmed cases. So one could cite and discuss that (which unfortunately didn’t happen). That of course is not a correlation with deaths, and was a quite modest effect (about 20%), and was so poorly reported that it makes one wonder about it’s validity.
On the other hand we now see the report by Reilly that there is no effect of having a coercive social distancing order on deaths when adjusted for population size and density. I have personally examined that analysis and confirmed that result on a similar dataset. Obviously that is a limited way to make the comparison, but it is accurate so far as it goes.
I have been searching and the problem of empirically determining whether an intervention has an effect on the growth rate of epidemics has been much more lightly covered than I would have expected. But I am continuing my research into this hoping there has been more and better studies on past epidemics.
There are a lot of model studies on Covid-19 which show that the model predicted more deaths and there have been fewer. But that is not particularly strong evidence that the interventions which have been applied were causative of fewer deaths, as many have argued.
Do I think it is reasonable to argue that the data are not terribly clear at this point, and to debate the relative strength of the evidence one way or another - absolutely - that is how science advances. But I do not think it reasonable to assert that there is no empirical data which can bear on this question, or that the answer is crystal clear, or consistently de-emphasize data because it doesn’t agree with one’s pre-conceived notions, or engage in fallacious arguments to try and support one’s ideas.